IBPS Agriculture Field Officer Model Question Paper 2012

IBPS Agriculture Field Officer Model Question Paper with answers 2012 Free download

Aptitude9 Providing you Model Questions on Professional Knowledge for IBPS Agriculture officer Field officer Exam.This question paper has 50 questions along with answers(bold option).you can download free and practice,hope these questions will helps much for IBPS Marketing officer exam.Professional knowledge playing the major role in IBPS Specialist officer exams,having the much weight age than other sections.

IBPS Professional knowledge Model Question Paper for Agriculture officer 2012

1. Organic matter content of histosols and hydromorphic soils is

a)    30% – 40%

b)    50% – 57%

c)     60% – 70%

d)    12% – 18%

e)    None of these

2. Which of the following statements regarding the causes of low crop productivity of sandy soils is not correct?

a)    Sandy soils have very low water retention capacity

b)    Sandy soils easily fix applied phosphatic fertilizer.

c)     Applied plant nutrients easily leech out through drainage.

d)    Sandy soils have very low organic matter content

e)    None of these

3. The cation exchange capacity (in units of milli equivalents per 100 gram of soil) of kaolinite clay varies between

a)    3 and 15

b)    16 and 40

c)     41 and 80

d)    81 and 100

e)    None of these

4. The phosphorus content as P in the plough layer of one hectare of soil containing 0.1 % P2O5 is

a)    430 kg.

b)    860 kg

c)     1290 kg

d)    1500 kg

e)    None of these

5. Match List – I (Principal soils of India) with List – II (Taxonomic soil order) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List – I

  1. Black soils of Maharashtra
  2. Laterite soils of Kerala
  3. Red soils of Chotanagpur
  4. Gangetic alluvial soils

List – II

  1. Alfisol
  2. Entisol
  3. Ultisol
  4. Vertisol

Codes :

A  B  C  D

(1)  3  4  1  2

(2)  3  4  2  1

(3)  4  3  2  1

(4)  4  3  1  2

(5)  2  1  3  4

6. Match List – I (Soil bacteria) with List – II (Microbiological reactions) and select the correct using the codes given below the lists:

Lists-I

  1. Nitrobacter
  2. Azotobackter
  3. Nitrosomonos
  4. Rhizobium

List-II

  1. Symbiotic fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
  2. Non – Symbiotic fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
  3. Conversion of ammonia into nitrite in soil
  4. Oxidation of nitrite to nitrate

Codes:

A  B  C  D

(1) 4  2  3  1

(2) 2  4  1  3

(3) 4  2  1  3

(4) 2  4  3  1

(5) 3  1  2  4

7. ‘Whip tail’ symptom in cauliflower is due to the deficiency of

a)    Copper

b)    Molybdenum

c)     Iron

d)    Zinc

e)    None of these

8. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List – I (Nutrients elements)

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Phosphorus
  3. Potassium
  4. Molybdenum

List – II (Function in the plant)

  1. Reduction  of nitrate
  2. Root growth
  3. Acceleration of vegetative growth
  4. Translocation of photosynthates

A  B  C  D

(1) 3   2  4  1

(2) 4  2  1  3

(3) 4  3  2  1

(4) 3  1  4  2

(5) 2  4  3  1

9. ‘Crop logging’ is the method of

a)    Soil fertility evaluation

b)    Plan analyst for assessing requirements for nutrients for crop production

c)     Assessing crop damage

d)    Testing suitability of fertilizers

e)    None of these

10. In a compost pit, the heat of combustion of organic matter raises the temperature when decay is occurring rapidly. During decay, the temperature rises by

a)    75 to 90°c

b)    60 to 80°c

c)     50 to 72°c

d)    40 60 60°c

e)    None of these

11. Which of the following pairs of rhizobium species and the host genera on which the rhizobium species, subsists, are correctly matched?

a)    R. Leguminosorum – Pisum

b)    R. Japonicum – Glycine

c)     R. Meliloti – Medicago

d)    All the above

e)    None of these

12. Poor nitrification rate of non-edible mahua (Madhucalatifolia) cake is due to

a)    The presence of oil

b)    Wide C : N ratio

c)     Low nitrogen content

d)    The presence of certain alkaloids

e)    None of these

13. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Fertilizers                                                  Nutrient content

a)    Urea                                                           42.0(%N)

b)    Di Ammonium Phosphate                       20.0(%P)

c)     Ammonium Sulphate                               21.5(%N)

d)    Muriate of Potash                                     47.5(%K)

e)    None of these

14. The neutralizing values of the following limiting materials are such that

a)    CaO > Ca (OH)2 > CaCO3 >  CaMg(CO3)2

b)    CaO > Ca (OH)2 > CaMg(CO3)2 > CaCO3

c)     Ca(OH)2 > CaO > CaMg(CO3)2 > (CaCO3)2

d)    CaCO3 > CaO > Ca(OH)2 > CaMg(CO3)2

e)    None of these

15. The nitrogenous fertilizer of choice for the tea is

a)    Calcium Ammonium Niitrate

b)    Urea

c)     Ammonium Sulphate

d)    Ammonium Nitrate

e)    None of these

16. Transport of Phosphate from the crystosal (pH about 7.0) into vacuoles (pH nearly 5.5) involves

a)    [H2PO4]-  alone

b)    [H2PO4]2- alone

c)     [PO4]3-  alone

d)    [H2PO­4]- and [HPO4]2-

e)    None of these

17. The number of essential elements required for the growth of most higher plants is

a)    3

b)    6

c)     8

d)    16

e)    None of these

18. Consider the following symptoms:

1)    Younger leaves show signs of deficiency first.

2)    High amide and nitrate nitrogen

3)    Effect more pronounced on shoots when compared to roots and cruciferous plants develop narrow leaf lamina.

4)    Blockage of synthesis of cysteine, methionine etc.

Development of the above mentioned symptoms is attributable to the deficiency of

a)    Calcium

b)    Magnesium

c)     Nitrogen

d)    Sulphur

e)    None of these

19. Diminished Carbohydrate status of the plant placed under high nitrogen supply is due to

a)    Lower photosynthetic activity

b)    Vigorous protein synthesis

c)     Increased transpiration rate

d)    Increased vegetative growth

e)    None of these

20. Match List-I (symptoms) with Lists-II(causes) and select the correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:

List – I

  1. Khaira disease of rice
  2. Browning of cauliflower
  3. Purple colouration of maize leaves
  4. Firing of tobacco leaves

Lists – II

  1. Phosphorus Deficiency
  2. Molybdenum Deficiency
  3. Potassium Deficiency
  4. Zinc Deficiency

Codes:

A  B  C  D

(1) 2  4  3  1

(2) 2  4  1  3

(3) 4  2  3  1

(4) 4  2  1  3

(5) 3  1  4  2

21. The uptake of oxygen and production of carbon dioxide in light by photosynthesizing tissue is called

a)    Respiration

b)    Photorespiration

c)     Ground respiration

d)    Salt respiration

e)    None of these

22. The link between glycolysis and citric acid cycle is the oxidative decarboxylation reaction to form

a)    Pyruvate

b)    Acetyl CoA

c)     Oxaloacetate

d)    Citrate

e)    None of these

23. Indole acetic acid belongs to which one of the following groups of plant growth hormones?

a)    Gibberallins

b)    Auxins

c)     Kinins

d)    Vitamins

e)    None of these

24. In plants, growth rate, protein synthesis and potassium uptake are stimulated by

a)    Cytokinins

b)    Enzymes

c)     Auxin

d)    Ethylene

e)    None of these

25. The growth hormone which overcomes genetic dwarfism in certain plants and causes elongation of intact plant is

a)    Gibberellin

b)    Auxin

c)     Abscisic acid

d)    Cytokinin

e)    None of these

26. In maize, 2n chromosome number = 20. The number of chromosomes in

1)    Endosperm cells

2)    Pollen mother cell

3)    Pollen tube nucleus and

4)    Root – tip cells would be respectively

(1) (2)  (3)  (4)

a)    30  20  20  10

b)    20  10  20  20

c)     20  20  10  20

d)    30  20   10  20

e)    None of these

27. Consider the following statements:

The formation of loop during pachytene indicates

a)    Deficiency

b)    Inversion

c)     Deplication

d)    Both (a) and (b)

e)    None of these

28. Genotype x Environment interaction would take place when there is/are

a)    One genotype and two environments

b)    Two genotypes and one environment

c)     Three genotypes and one environment

d)    Two or more genotypes and two or more environments

e)    None of these

29. The situation where an egg cell is developed in to an embryo without fertilization, is are described as

a)    Apomixis

b)    Parthenocarpy

c)     Sexual reproduction

d)    Parthenohenesis

e)    None of these

30. An anticodon is a sequence of three nitrogenous bases found on

a)    DNA

b)    Messenger RNA

c)     Ribosomal RNA

d)    Transfer RNA

e)    None of these

31. What is the correct sequence of the following during the process of mitosis?

1) The chromosomes are in their most condensed form having          moved to the equatorial plane of the spindle.

2)    The centromere interacts with the spindle apparatus.

3)    The chromosomes consists of long threads paired along their entire length

4)    Division of the cytoplasm

5)    Sister chromatids move a part of opposite poles.

6)    The nuclear membrane breaks down and spindle shaped structure of microtubules is organized.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

a)    3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 4

b)    3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4

c)     3, 2, 6, 5, 1, 4

d)    3, 2, 6, 1, 5, 4

e)    2, 3, 6, 5, 4, 1

32. Epitasis should be carefully distinguished from the dominance, which refers to non – additivity of alleles at

a)    The same locus of a homologous chromosome

b)    Different loci of the homologous chromosome

c)     The same locus of non-homologous chromosomes

d)    Different loci of non-homologous chromosomes

e)    None of these

33. Composites are developed by using

a)    Advanced generation seed mixture obtained from high yielding intervarietal or interracial crosses

b)    Hybrid directly from intervarietal crosses

c)     Recurrent selections for specific combining ability

d)    The hybrid of an inbred with an open pollinated variety.

e)    None of these

34. Plants grown from the seed of an open-pollinated variety of maize

a)    Vary in plant height as well as seed characters

b)    Are uniform in plant height and seed characters

c)     Vary in plant height but are uniform in seed characters

d)    Are uniform in plant height but vary in seed characters

e)    None of these

35. Superiority of heterozygotes leads to

a)    Fixation of recessive allele

b)    Fixation of dominant allele

c)     Maintenance of both the alleles

d)    Depression of inbreeding

e)    None of these

36. Composites are popular because seed produce the hybrid varieties of because seeds produces by a composite variety

a)    Can be used again as seed for 3 to 4 years

b)    Have negligible inbreeding effect.

c)     Make varietal maintenance easy.

d)    All of these

e)    None of these

37. Consider the following international crop improvement institutes:

1)    International Centre for Maize and Wheat Improvement, Mexico

2)    International Crops Research institute  for Semi-Arid Tropics, India

3)    International Rice Research Institute, Philippines

4)    International Centre for potato, Peru

The correct chronological order in which these institutes were established is:

a)    1, 2, 3, 4

b)    3, 1, 2, 4

c)     3, 1, 4, 2

d)    1, 3, 4, 2

e)    2, 4, 1, 3

38. The initial gene pool of a composite population is composed of

a)    Inbred lines

b)    Isolines

c)     Pure lines

d)    Single plants derived from crosses and/ or germplasm lines

e)    None of these

39. In cotton, the popularly grown commercial hybrid ‘varalaxmi’ is product of

a)    Intraspecific hybridization in Gossypium barbadense

b)    Intraspecific hybridization in Gossypium barbadense

c)     Intraspecific hybridization between Gossypium hirsutum and Gossypium barbadense

d)    Intraspecific hybridization between Gossypium arboreum and Gossypium herbaceum

e)    None of these

40. Jawahar, Vikram, Kisan and Sena, the important varieties of maize are

a)    Double-cross hybrids

b)    Synthetic varieties

c)     Composite varieties

d)    Single-cross hybrids

e)    None of these

41. The initial gene pool of a synthetic population is composed of

a)    Plants from a open pollinated variety

b)    Purelines

c)     Inbred lines

d)    Isolines

e)    None of these

42. Which of the following is the 3-gene dwarf variety of wheat ?

a)    Sonalika

b)    Lerma Rojo and Chhoti Lerma

c)     Heera and Moti

d)    Safed Lerma

e)    None of these

43. In maize, ‘Ganga – safed – 2’ (GS-2) is a

a)    Single-cross hybrid

b)    Double cross hybrid

c)     Three way cross hybrid

d)    Double topcross hybrid

e)    None of these

44. Litchi does not flower in south Indian Plateau in winter months

a)    For want of sufficient low temperature in winter months

b)    Because of high temperature prevalent at the time of flower formation

c)     Because of high relative humidity present at the time of flower formation

d)    Because of the excessive light stimulus present at the time of flower formation

e)    None of these

45. Grapes are pruned only one in northern India while they are pruned twice in Southern India. The difference is due to the fact that grapes

a)    Shed leaves in winter in northern India while they remain evergreen in southern India

b)    Are clearly in bearing in northern India while they beat late in southern India

c)     Bear lightly in Northern India while they bear heavily in southern India

d)    Are less prone to diseases in northern India while they are more prone to diseases in southern India

e)    None of these

46. Which one of the following rose cultivars has striped flowers?

a)    Abhisarica

b)    Bhim

c)     Chitchore

d)    Mrinalini

e)    None of these

47. The species were the foliage beauty is due to modification of leaves as bracts would include

a)    Bougainvillea

b)    Hibiscus

c)     Poinsettia

d)    Both (a) and (b)

e)    None of these

48. Mulching of banana crop with black polythene reduces the population of weed because it

a)    Restricts the supply of oxygen

b)    Results in excessive moisture in the root zone of weeds

c)     Obstructs light and bence the weed starves

d)    All of the above

e)    None of these

49. Which one of the following fruits contains more fat that the rest?

a)    Apple

b)    Guava

c)     Avocado

d)    Jack fruit

e)    None of these

50. Match List-I (Fruits) with List-II (Carbohydrate content) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

List – I                                               List – II

  1. Jack Fruit                                         1. 11%
  2. Banana                                             2. 14%
  3. Guave (Plains)                                 3. 36%
  4. Mango (ripe)                                    4. 19%

Codes:

A  B  C  D

a)    4  3  2  1

b)    4  3  1  2

c)     3  4  2  1

d)    3  4  1  2

e)    2  1  4  3

 

 

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